Why prefer != over <> for Python 3.0?

[Jeroen Ruigrok van der Werven]

-On [20080329 13:01], Paul Rubin ("http://phr.cx"@NOSPAM.invalid) wrote:
>Yes, what I mean is that some languages (e.g. Ada, Haskell) use /= for
>nonequality.

/= is understandable given how it looks like a digraph for ≠ (U+2260) and I
am guessing that was the intent.

-- 
Jeroen Ruigrok van der Werven <asmodai(-at-)in-nomine.org> / asmodai
イェルーン ラウフロック ヴァン デル ウェルヴェン
http://www.in-nomine.org/ | http://www.rangaku.org/
Cum angelis et pueris, fideles inveniamur. Quis est iste Rex gloriae..?