P*rl in Latin, whither Python?

[Philip 'Yes, that's my address' Newton]

On Sat, 11 Nov 2000 03:22:28 GMT, ssthapa at harper.uchicago.edu (Suchandra Thapa)
wrote:

>     Actually the thing I'm curious about is how authentic it is.  Does
> perligata follow latin's substitution of i, and v for j and u respectively,
> not allowing  k since roman's didn't have j, u, w, or k in their alphabet?

Didn't they use K for loan words from Greek?

> Also whether verbs are properly conjugated or nouns declined

Did you read through the page? Nouns are certainly declined, though the scheme
is simpler than the complete grammar -- it's the way to distinguish "a = b" from
"b = a" -- the target of the assignment gets the dative case and the object of
the assignment gets the accusative. Verbs are used in the infinitive (to define
a subroutine), the imperative (to call it), and as verbal nouns which are
declined (to use their result).

Cheers,
Philip
-- 
Philip Newton <nospam.newton at gmx.li>
If you're not part of the solution, you're part of the precipitate.