Why has python3 been created as a seperate language where there is still python2.7 ?

[wxjmfauth at gmail.com]

On Thursday, June 28, 2012 7:47:24 AM UTC+2, Stefan Behnel wrote:
> Serhiy Storchaka, 28.06.2012 07:36:
> > On 28.06.12 00:14, Terry Reedy wrote:
> >> Another prediction: people who code Python without reading the manual,
> >> at least not for new features, will learn about 'u' somehow (such as by
> >> reading this list) and may do either of the following, both of which are
> >> bad.
> >>
> >> 1. They will confuse themselves by thinking that 'u' actually means
> >> somethings. They may then confuse others by writing about its supposed
> >> meaning. This might get amusing.
> >>
> >> 2. They will use 'u' in Python 3 only code, thereby making it
> >> incompatible with 3.2-, even if it otherwise would not be.
> >>
> >> These two actions will reinforce each other.
> > 
> > Yes, this is what I mean. I can even make a prediction: in just 5 years, as
> > this feature would be banned in a decent society. The authors of the books
> > will be strongly advise not to use it, and in software companies 'u' will
> > be prohibited in coding style. But get rid of this will be difficult.
> 
> Once Py2.7 is out of maintenance, we can deprecate that feature in one
> release and start warning about it in the next one. You're then free to use
> the corresponding 2to3 fixer to get it back out of your code with a single
> patch.
> 
> Stefan

On the other side, one can argue this (elegancy):

b'a serie of bytes'
u'a unicode, a serie of code points'

'python2? str? python3? encoded _unicode?'

jmf