Looking for the best way to translate an idiom

[I V]

On Sun, 14 Dec 2008 21:08:33 -0800, James Stroud wrote:
> Yes. I think it was the British who decided that the apostrophe rule for
> "it" would be reversed from normal usage relative to just about every
> other noun. I'm not sure the purpose--maybe it was to give compulsive
> proofreaders a raison d'etre.

It's because "it" is a pronoun; you don't put an apostrophe in "his," 
either.